PROOF OF THE DEPASCALISATION
THEOREM
Amarnath Murthy, S.E.(E&T), WLS, Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Ltd., Sabarmati, Ahmedabad,-380005 INDIA.
In [1] we have defined Pascalisation as follows:
Let b1, b2, . . . be a base sequence. Then the Smarandache Pascal derived sequence
d1 , d2, . . . is defined as
d1 = b1
d2 = b1 + b2
d3 = b1 + 2b2 + b3
d4 = b1 + 3b2 + 3b3 + b4
. . .
n
dn+1 = S nCk
.bk+1
k=0
Now Given Sd the task ahead is to find out the base sequence Sb . We call the process of extracting the base sequence from the Pascal derived sequence as Depascalsation. The interesting observation is that this again involves the Pascal's triangle , but with a difference.
On expressing bk 's in terms of dk's We get
b1 = d1
b2 = -d1 + d2
b3 = d1 - 2d2 + d3
b4 = -d1 + 3d2 - 3d3 + d4
. . .
which suggests the possibility of
n
bn+1 = S (-1)n+k.
nCk .dk+1
k=0
This I call as Depascalisation Theorem.
PROOF: We shall prove it by induction.
Let the proposition be true for all the numbers l £ k+1. Then we have
bk+1 = kC0 (-1)k+2 d1 + kC1 (-1)k+1 d2 +. . . + kCk (-1)2
Also we have
dk+2 = k+1C0 b1 + k+1C1 b2 + . . . + k+1Cr br+1 + . . . + k+1Ck+1 bk+2 , which gives
bk+2 = (-1) k+1C0 b1 - k+1C1
b2 - . . . - k+1Cr br+1 - . . . + dk+2
substituting the values of b1, b2, . . .etc. in terms of d1, d2, . . . , we get the coefficient of d1 as
(-1) k+1C0 + (-k+1C1)(-1C0) +(-k+1C2)( 2C0) +. . .+ (-1)r . k+1Cr)(rC0) +. . .+ (-1) k+1(k+1Ck)(kC0)
- k+1C0 + k+1C1. 1C0 - k+1C2 . 2C0 +. . .+ (-1)r . k+1Cr . rC0 +. . .+ (-1)k+1. k+1Ck . kC0
similarly the coefficient of d2 is
k+1C1. 1C1 + k+1C2 . 2C1 +. . .+ (-1)r+1. k+1Cr . rC1 +. . .+ (-1) k+1 . k+1Ck . kC1
on similar lines we get the coefficient of dm+1 as
k+1Cm. mCm
+ k+1Cm+1 . m+1Cm - . . .+ (-1)r+m.
k+1Cr+m . r+mCm +. . .+ (-1) k+m
. k+1Ck . kCm
k-m
= S (-1)h+1
k+1Cm+h . m+hCm
h=0
(k+1)-m
S (-1)h+1
k+1Cm+h . m+hCm + (-1) k+m
. k+1Ck+1 . k+1Cm
-------------(1)
h=0
Applying theorem {4.2} of reference [2], in (1) we get
= k+1Cm { 1 + (-1)}k+1-m + (-1)k+m . k+1Cm
= (-1)k+m . k+1Cm
which shows that the proposition is true for (k+2) as well. The proposition has already been verified for k+1 = 3 , hence by induction the proof is complete.
In matrix notation if we write
[ b1, b2 , . . bn
]1xn * [pi,j ]'nxn = [ d1,
d2 , . . dn ]1xn
where [pi,j ]'nxn = the transpose of [pi,j ]nxn and
[pi,j ]nxn is given by pi,j = i-1Cj-1 if i £ j else pi,j = 0
Then we get the following result
If [qi,j]nxn is the transpose of the inverse of [pi,j ]nxn Then
qi,j = (-1)j+i .i-1Cj-1
We also have
[ b1, b2 , . . bn ] * [qi,j ]'nxn = [ d1, d2 , . . dn ]
where [qi,j ]'nxn = The Transpose of [qi,j ]nxn
References:
[1] Amarnath Murthy, ' Smarandache Pascal Derived Sequences', SNJ, March ,2000.
[2] Amarnath Murthy, 'More Results and Applications of the Smarandache Star Function., SNJ, VOL.11, No. 1-2-3, 2000.